Sorry about all that confusion with the formulas but could
someone please try and answer my previous post about
withdrawing members...

Thanks,

Mike

once again, i'm a little confused as to your question. He
will have no ownership in stock purchased after his
withdrawal date, irrespective of which "money" was used to
buy them. The only problem i see is that the amount you
would have paid him for his withdrawal would be too high by
the amount of the unpaid contribution credited to him. does
that make sense?

Michael Hall wrote:
> Sorry about all that confusion with the formulas but could
> someone please try and answer my previous post about
> withdrawing members...
>
> Thanks,
>
> Mike